In the No-Fault 3.2 section manual states PIP is primary over all other payments except Worker's Compensation. In Medical Payments Part B 3.7 section it states that "Medical Payments are reduced by any amounts payable for the same expense under Liability, PIP or UM coverages". The next paragraph states that "Medical Payments coverage is primary with respects to other available medical payments coverage". So my question is whether Part B is primary or is it excess? Confusing again.
Part B Med Pay may be primary or it may be excess depending on the loss and the other coverages available. Liability, PIP and UM are primary over Med Pay. So is Workers Compensation.
In your question the term "other available medical payments coverage" refers to health insurance. That's one of the reasons the doctor's office and hospital ask how you were hurt. If your injuries involved a vehicle, they may file under your auto insurance instead of your health insurance.
Jan
It makes sense that if it's an auto accident, that the PAP coverages would kick in over health insurance until they're all exausted depending on who's at fault, etc. I guess what I'm trying to understand and I'm sure it differs depending on the scenario, whether PIP comes first over Medical Payments and UM. What would be the order? Let's say if I were in an accident and I have PIP w/no deductible then I get hit by a drunk driver that has insurance with full PIP as well, how would that pay out? My PIP first, then his liability, then my medical payments?? And if he had no insurance and I have UM, would my UM kick in after medical payments or medical payments come first? Assuming my injuries are $100,000.
Grisel,
Your scenario is correct. In a not at-fault accident the coverage follows this order: your PIP, other driver's liability, Med Pay. Um will kick-in if the driver had no insurance or if they were underinsured.
Jan